Homo While We’re On the Subject of Gay Men and Pedophilia
posted by on October 13 at 12:03 PM
Andrew Sullivan posted on this earlier in the week: Check out this bracing and always-to-be-kept-on-file take down of the age-old smear against gay men:
[T]he very scientists that are cited in support of the contention that gays are more likely to be molesters explicitly reject the idea that homosexuals pose a disproportionate threat to children. These scientists note that pedophilia is a separate orientation from homosexuality and that the vast majority of molesters who target boys have either no interest in mature males or are heterosexual men who are attracted to the feminine characteristics of pre-pubescent males.As for the ‘slippery slope’ argument, the biggest mistake many social conservatives make is to assume that the contemporary taboo against sexual relations with children is a longstanding part of the Judeo-Christian tradition, which is only now coming under assault by the left. In fact, the Judeo-Christian tradition and many other religious traditions tolerated and even affirmed pedophilic relationships for centuries. The contemporary taboo against such relationships developed only a little over one hundred years ago, as people became more enlightened about the potentially damaging aspects of sexual relations between persons of unequal maturity and power.
Let us also bring into the discussion "ephebophilia, which is perhaps the more precise term for Foley's condition. "Pederasty," according to some researchers and cultural anthropologists, can be manifested as "spiritual or materialistic, lawful or criminal, loving or commercial, compassionate or abusive," and it falls under the umbrella of "age-structured homosexuality" (as opposed to gender-structured or egalitarian). Ephebophilia, however, is a sexual preference entirely separate from homosexuality, heterosexuality, and pedophilia.
I started to get sexually harassed by straight men when I was only ten years old. Clearly, the problem is with men, not gays.
If you want an academic overview of the Judeo-Christian history of "sodomy" (though, not necessarily pedophilia, pederasty or "ephebophilia"), check out this brief from Mark Jordan, titled The Invention of Sodomy in Christian Theology (ISBN# 0226410404).
I’ve posted about this before, but it bears mentioning again.
Based on what we know now, Foley is not a pedophile. He may be emotionally frozen at the age where he had to intensely repress his natural sexual orientation, but he is not after children, only young adults.
This is a case of sexual harassment due to a power imbalance between him and the pages. I’m not making excuses for his behavior, but I am saying that he is a sexual predator and not a pedophile. That’s why we have age of consent laws that usually specify age 15 or 16.
And I’m speaking from personal experience.
When I was 16, I had it off with a 25 year old. I was mature enough to make that decision, to practice safe sex and not expect a relationship. I most certainly was not taken advantage of, quite the opposite, as I was ready to get with any attractive man who would have me. It was illegal due to the fact that our red state had sodomy laws at the time, but it was not immoral. The age of consent was 15 at the time, but I’m sure the anti-sex police have raised it to 35 by now.
The point is that some 16 year olds are ready for sex and some aren’t, just as some 25 year olds are ready for sex and some aren’t. As another Slogger hilariously wrote “16 is old enough to know what Mr. Congressman is talking about when he says he want to take your shorts off,” and that is so true.
This isn't a refutation; it's merely changing the subject. Many people do not to understand that the probably of being a pedophile given that one is gay [p(P|G)] is a completely different statistic that the probably of being gay given that one is a pedophile [p(G|P)].
It is entirely possible that gay men are much more likely to be pedophiles than straight men [p(P|G) >> p(P|~G)] and simultaneously that many more pedophiles are straight than are gay [p(~G|P) >> p(G|P)]. Showing that the latter claim is true doesn't refute the former claim.
Dan, do you have any evidence that the former claim is false? Do you even personally believe that it is false?
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